[2025] New ISTQB-CTFL exam dumps Use Updated ISTQB Exam
Verified ISTQB-CTFL Dumps Q&As - ISTQB-CTFL Test Engine with Correct Answers
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following provides the BEST description of statement coverage?
- A. A white-box test technique which focuses on the percentage of executable statements that has been executed by a test suite
- B. An experience-based test technique in which test cases are based on the tester's knowledge of past failures
- C. A white-box test technique which covers the decision results which determine the next statement to be executed
- D. A black-box test technique which uses a state table to derive test cases
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement coverage is a white-box test technique which focuses on executing all possible statements in the code at least once during testing. This helps in determining the percentage of executable statements that have been executed by the test suite, aiming to ensure that all parts of the program have been tested at least once (ISTQB Main Web).References:
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0 PDF
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following work products cannot be examined by static analysis?
- A. Formal models
- B. Test plans
- C. Source code
- D. Compiled code
Answer: B
Explanation:
Static analysis is the process of examining the work products of a software development or testing activity without executing them. Static analysis can be applied to various types of work products, such as requirements, design, code, test cases, etc. However, test plans are not suitable for static analysis, because they are high-level documents that describe the test objectives, scope, strategy, resources, schedule, and risks of a testing project. Test plans are not executable or formalized in a way that static analysis tools can analyze them. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.2.1, page 20; ISTQB Glossary v4.
02, page 45.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Out of the following. what is not needed to specify in defect report?
- A. How to fix the defect
- B. Test environment details
- C. Seventy and priority
- D. How to reproduce the defect
Answer: A
Explanation:
A defect report is a document that records the details of a defect found during testing. A defect report typically contains the following items:
* Identifier: A unique identifier for the defect report
* Summary: A concise summary of the defect
* Description: A detailed description of the defect, including the steps to reproduce it, the expected and actual results, and any relevant screenshots or logs
* Severity: The degree of impact that the defect has on the system
* Priority: The level of urgency for resolving the defect
* Status: The current state of the defect, such as new, open, resolved, closed, etc.
* Resolution: The action taken to resolve the defect, such as fix, workaround, reject, etc. Out of these items, the one that is not needed to specify in a defect report is how to fix the defect. How to fix the defect is a technical solution that is usually determined by the developer who is assigned to resolve the defect. How to fix the defect is not part of the defect report, but rather part of the code change or patch that is delivered to fix the defect. The other items are needed to specify in a defect report, as they provide essential information for identifying, tracking and resolving defects. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 32-33.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:
[I]. The contrast color ratio for both normal text and large text of a website does not comply with the applicable accessibility guidelines, making it difficult for many users to read the content on the pages
[II]. A development vendor fails to deliver their software system on time, causing significant delays to system integration testing activities that have been planned as part of a development project for a system of systems
[III]. People in the test team do not have sufficient skills to automate tests at the test levels required by the test automation strategy which does not allow production of an effective regression test suite
[IV]. In a web application, data from untrusted sources is not subject to proper input validation, making the application vulnerable to several security attacks Which of the following statements is true?
- A. [I] and [III] are product risks; [II] and [IV] are project risks
- B. [II], [III] and [IV] are product risks; [I] is a project risk
- C. [IV] is a product risk; [I]. [II] and [III] are project risks
- D. [I] and [IV] are product risks. [II] and [III] are project risks
Answer: D
Explanation:
This answer is correct because product risks are risks that affect the quality of the software product, such as defects, failures, or non-compliance with requirements or standards. Project risks are risks that affect the project's schedule, budget, resources, or scope, such as delays, cost overruns, skill gaps, or scope changes. In this case, [I] and [IV] are product risks, as they relate to the accessibility and security of the software product, which are quality attributes. [II] and [III] are project risks, as they relate to the delivery time and the test automation skills of the test team, which are project factors. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.1.1.1
NEW QUESTION # 70
A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.
Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?
- A. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.
- B. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product
- C. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it
- D. It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests
Answer: B
Explanation:
* A product risk is a risk that affects the quality or timeliness of the software product being developed or tested1. Product risks are related to the requirements, design, implementation, verification, and maintenance of the software product2.
* The risk of the sub-contractor failing to meet his commitment is a product risk, as it could cause a delay in the completion of the testing required for the current cycle, which in turn could affect the release date of the product. The release date is an important aspect of the product quality, as it reflects the customer satisfaction and the market competitiveness of the product3.
* The other options are not correct because:
* A. It is not true that any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk. Some risks could be project risks, which are risks that affect the management or control of the software project, such as budget, resources, schedule, or communication1. For example, a risk of losing a key project stakeholder is a project risk, not a product risk.
* B. It is not true that the risk is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party is managing it. The Test Manager is still responsible for ensuring that the testing activities are completed according to the test plan and the quality objectives4. The Test Manager should monitor and control the sub-contractor's performance and communicate with him regularly to identify and mitigate any potential issues or deviations5.
* C. It is not clear what is meant by "object" in this option, but it could be interpreted as the software system under test or the test object6. In any case, the risk is not an object risk, as it does not affect the successful completion of the object, but rather the successful completion of the testing of the object. An object risk could be a risk that affects the functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability, or portability of the software system under test2. For example, a risk of the software system having a high complexity or a low testability is an object risk, not a product risk.
References =
* 1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97
* 2 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98
* 3 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 99
* 4 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 100
* 5 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 101
* 6 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 102
NEW QUESTION # 71
A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:
- A. Test design
- B. Test implementation
- C. Test analysis
- D. Test monitoring and control
Answer: B
Explanation:
This answer is correct because test implementation is the activity where test work products, such as test cases, test data, test scripts, test harnesses, test stubs, or virtual services, are created and verified. Test implementation also involves setting up the test environment and preparing the test execution schedule. A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts that interact with that service are examples of test work products that are typically created during test implementation. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.2.2.3
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is FALSE?
- A. The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed.
- B. The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed.
- C. The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution.
- D. The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities
Answer: C
Explanation:
A typical test plan includes various elements, such as resource requirements, test completion criteria, and suspension/resumption criteria. However, the list of product risks that have not been fully mitigated is generally not included in the test plan but rather in the risk management documentation.
* The test plan focuses on planning and executing tests, including resource allocation and defining criteria for test suspension and resumption.
* While risk management is crucial, unmitigated risks are typically documented in risk logs or separate risk management plans.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Chapter 5.1.1, Test Planning.
NEW QUESTION # 73
The whole-team approach:
- A. is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence
- B. is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories
- C. promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product
- D. promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques
Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because the whole-team approach is a way of working in agile projects where all team members share the responsibility for the quality of the product, and collaborate on delivering value to the customer. The whole-team approach involves testers, developers, business analysts, product owners, and other stakeholders in planning, designing, developing, testing, and delivering the product. The whole-team approach fosters communication, feedback, learning, and continuous improvement within the team. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section
3.1.1.1
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?
- A. Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing
- B. Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools
- C. Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics
- D. Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects
Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because static testing and dynamic testing are both types of testing that can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics, such as usability, performance, security, reliability, etc. Static testing is a type of testing that involves the analysis of software work products, such as requirements, design, code, or test cases, without executing them. Dynamic testing is a type of testing that involves the execution of software work products, such as code or test cases, using inputs and verifying outputs. Both static testing and dynamic testing can be applied to different test levels and test types, and can use different test techniques and tools, to evaluate the non-functional characteristics of the software product. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.2.1.1, Section 2.2.1.2
NEW QUESTION # 75
In the newest version of payroll system number of changes were made. As a tester you got a task to perform regression and confirmation tests. Which of the following project activities are related to confirmation testing?
- A. Testing if a system still works after update of an operating system
- B. Testing due to the application of a new version of the interface
- C. Testing to ensure the adding of a new functionalities haven't broken existing functions
- D. Testing that fixes resolved the defects in the search function
Answer: D
Explanation:
Confirmation testing, also known as re-testing, is performed to verify that specific defects have been successfully fixed.
Option A: "Testing due to the application of a new version of the interface" would typically involve regression testing, not confirmation testing.
Option B: "Testing that fixes resolved the defects in the search function" fits the description of confirmation testing as it focuses on ensuring that specific issues have been addressed.
Option C: "Testing if a system still works after update of an operating system" is an example of regression testing, as it checks the overall system behavior after an update.
Option D: "Testing to ensure the adding of new functionalities haven't broken existing functions" is another example of re (ISTQB not-for-profit association) (Udemy) it checks for unintended consequences of new changes.
Therefore, the correct answer is B6†source9†source.
References:
* Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0
* ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 4.0 (2023)
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?
- A. S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4
- B. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1
- C. S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4
- D. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0, the life cycle of a defect typically follows a sequence from its discovery to its closure. In the provided figure, it starts with S0 (New), moves to S1 (Assigned), then to S2 (Resolved), followed by S3 (Verified). If the defect is not fixed, it can be Re- opened (S5) and goes back for verification (S3). Once verified, it is Closed (S4). References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.4.3, Page 17.
NEW QUESTION # 77
Select which of the following statements describe the key principles of software testing?
i. Testing shows the presence of defects, not their absence.
ii. Testing everything Is possible.
iii. Early testing Is more expensive and is a waste of time.
iv. Defects cluster together.
v. Testing is context dependent.
vi. Beware of the pesticide paradox.
vii. Absence of errors is a fallacy.
Select the correct answer:
- A. i, iv, v, vi and vii
- B. I, ii, v. vi and vii
- C. iii. iv, v. vi and vii
- D. ii, iii, iv, v and vi
Answer: A
Explanation:
The key principles of software testing include: i. Testing shows the presence of defects, not their absence. iv.
Defects cluster together. v. Testing is context dependent. vi. Beware of the pesticide paradox. vii. Absence of errors is a fallacy. These principles highlight the importance of recognizing the limitations and context of testing, as well as the potential for repeated tests to become less effective.
NEW QUESTION # 78
You are working in an agile team on the creation of software for use in robotic assistance systems that support industrial manufacturing processes. You are currently in the effort estimation phase using planning poker. In the current sprint, three user stories are to be implemented:
A . The assistance system is to have a customizable layout. For this purpose, the user should be able to choose between 3 combinations of font size and background color at startup.
B . In the initialization phase, the assistance system should validate the inputs of the 10 customer specific and process specific parameters against a list of 5 consistency rules and display the result to the user.
C . The assistance system currently supports the manufacturing process with 2 robot gripper arms, this shall be extended to 5 gripper arms. In addition, the system shall perform a pre-calculation of the movements of all gripper arms in real time and automatically stop the system in case of a calculated collision of the gripper arms.
You are now asked to estimate the test effort for each of these user stories by using planning poker. The following value rules apply for the test effort estimation:
3 - low (<= 10 test cases)
8 - medium (> 10 and <= 20 test cases)
13 - high (> 20 and <= 50 test cases)
21 - very high (> 50 and <= 100 test cases)
34 - too complex (number of test cases cannot be estimated from information) For each of the three user stories, which planning poker value makes the most sense when estimating the test effort?
- A. A:13; B:13; C:13;
- B. A:3; B:13; C:34;
- C. A:21; B:13; C:13;
- D. A:3; B:21; C:8;
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 79
A software application incorrectly provided customers discounts of 50% off their total purchases if the purchases exceeded S100. It was discovered through an audit that the discount should have been only 5% off these purchases. A root cause analysis uncovered that the requirements Incorrectly stated 50% instead of 5% in this scenario.
Which of the following MOST accurately reflects this scenario?
- A. The incorrect customer discount is the effect and the reason for the requirement error is the root cause
- B. A defect in the code is determined to be the root cause of the incorrect calculation
- C. The audit finding Is the root cause, the incorrect calculation of 50% Is the defect, and the Incorrect requirement Is the effect
- D. The incorrect discount is the root cause, requiring a root cause analysis which led to investigating the software code, design, and requirements
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, a defect is a deviation from the expected result which in this scenario is the incorrect discount applied to the customers. The root cause, as per the ISTQB definition, is the originating cause of a defect, which in this case is the incorrect requirement stating 50% instead of 5%. Therefore, the incorrect requirement is the root cause and the customer receiving the wrong discount is the effect of this root cause.
Reference:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 1.4.3 "Defects, Root Causes, and Effects".
NEW QUESTION # 80
As a tester, as part of a V-model project, you are currently executing some tests aimed at verifying if a mobile app asks the user to grant the proper access permissions during the installation process and after the installation process. The requirements specification states that in both cases the app shall ask the user to grant access permissions only to the camera and photos stored on the device. However, you observe that the app also asks the user to grant access permission to all contacts on the device. Consider the following items:
[I]. Test environment
[ii]. Expected result
[iii]. Actual result.
[IV] Test level.
[V]. Root cause.
Based on only the given information, which of the items listed above, are you able to CORRECTLY specify in a defect report?
- A. [ii], [iii] and [v]
- B. [l] and [IV]
- C. [ii] and [III].
- D. [ii], [IV] and [V].
Answer: C
Explanation:
When writing a defect report, the tester can specify the expected result and the actual result based on the observation. The expected result is what the requirements specify, and the actual result is what was observed during testing. These elements are crucial for clearly communicating the nature of the defect to developers and other stakeholders. The other items such as test environment, test level, and root cause may not be clear or necessary at this stage of defect reporting.
References: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, Section on defect management and reporting.
NEW QUESTION # 81
A financial institution is to implement a system that calculates the interest rates paid on investment accounts based on the sum invested.
You are responsible for testing the system and decide to use equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to design test cases. The requirements describe the following expectations:
Investment range | Interest rate
R500 to RIO 000 10%
RIO 001 to R50 000 11%
R50 001 to RlOOOOO 12%
RIOOOOl to R500 000 | 13%
What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the interest?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Using equivalence partitioning, the investment ranges are divided into four partitions:
R500 to R10,000 (10%)
R10,001 to R50,000 (11%)
R50,001 to R100,000 (12%)
R100,001 to R500,000 (13%)
Thus, the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the interest is 4.
NEW QUESTION # 82
A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.
Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?
- A. Data flow coverage
- B. Code coverage
- C. Statement coverage
- D. Branch Coverage
Answer: D
Explanation:
Branch coverage is a type of structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of branches or decision outcomes that are executed by the test cases. A branch is a point in the code where the control flow can take two or more alternative paths based on a condition. For example, an if-else statement is a branch that can execute either the if-block or the else-block depending on the evaluation of the condition. Branch coverage ensures that each branch is taken at least once by the test cases, and thus reveals the behavior of the software under different scenarios. Branch coverage is also known as decision coverage or all-edges coverage.
Branch coverage is suitable for testing the cases where a specific action is not allowed, because it can verify that the test cases cover all the possible outcomes of the conditions that determine the action. For example, if the program has a condition that checks if the manufacturing stage can be stopped, then branch coverage can ensure that the test cases cover both the cases where the stage can be stopped and where it cannot be stopped.
This way, branch coverage can help identify any missing or incorrect branches that may lead to undesired or unsafe actions.
The other options are not correct because they are not suitable for testing the cases where a specific action is not allowed. Code coverage is a general term that encompasses various types of coverage metrics, such as statement coverage, branch coverage, data flow coverage, etc. Code coverage does not specify which type of coverage metric is used for the analysis. Data flow coverage is a type of structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of data flow paths that are executed by the test cases. A data flow path is a sequence of statements that define, use, or kill a variable. Data flow coverage is useful for testing the correctness and completeness of the data manipulation in the software, but not for testing the conditions that determine the actions. Statement coverage is a type of structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of statements or lines of code that are executed by the test cases. Statement coverage ensures that each statement is executed at least once by the test cases, but it does not reveal the behavior of the software under different scenarios.
Statement coverage is a weaker criterion than branch coverage, because it does not account for the branches or decision outcomes in the code. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 4: Test Techniques, Section 4.3: Structural Testing Techniques, Pages 51-54.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Given the following state model of sales order software:
* PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION
* IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED
* IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED
* SHIPPED -> INVOICED
* INVOICED -> CANCELLED
* CANCELLED -> PLACED
Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?
- A. IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED
- B. PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED
- C. IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION
- D. PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED
Answer: C
Explanation:
State transition testing is a black-box testing technique where test cases are designed to cover states and transitions of a state machine.
Given the state model with the following transitions:
* PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION
* IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED
* IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED
* SHIPPED -> INVOICED
* INVOICED -> CANCELLED
* CANCELLED -> PLACED
To cover all transitions at least once, we need to create a sequence that covers all six transitions.
Option A: IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED
- Misses SHIPPED -> INVOICED and INVOICED -> CANCELLED transitions.
Option B: IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION
- Covers all transitions.
Option C: PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED (ISTQB not-for-profit association) (Udemy)sses INVOICED -> CANCELLED transition.
Option D: PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED
- Misses SHIPPED -> INVOICED and INVOICED -> CANCELLED transitions.
Given these, Option B covers all the transitions#6†source##9†source#.
References:
Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0
10 Sample Exams ISTQB Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0
NEW QUESTION # 84
Which one of the following statements IS NOT a valid objective of testing?
- A. To find failures and defects
- B. To build confidence in the level of quality of the test object.
- C. To find all defects in a product, ensuring the product is defect free.
- D. To evaluate work products such as requirements, user stories, design, and code.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Finding all defects in a product and ensuring it is defect-free is not a valid objective of testing. Testing aims to find as many defects as possible, build confidence in the quality of the product, and evaluate work products.
However, it is unrealistic to expect testing to find all defects, and declaring a product completely defect-free is impractical.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 1.1.1
NEW QUESTION # 85
A test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the developer has fixed the defect, the test engineer decides to re-run a complete section of the tests. Which of the following is correct?
- A. The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated.
- B. The lest engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded.
- C. The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix.
- D. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix. This is also known as regression testing, which is a type of testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs correctly after a change. Regression testing helps to detect any side effects or unintended consequences of a fix or a modification. The other options are incorrect reasons for re-running the tests. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded, because this ignores the possibility of new defects caused by the fix. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests, because this assumes that developer tests are sufficient and reliable, which may not be true. The test engineer should not re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated, because this does not address the impact of the fix on other test cases or functionalities. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 41.
NEW QUESTION # 86
During which main group of test activity are the following tasks performed?
* Checking test results and logs against specified coverage criteria.
* Assessing the level of component or system quality based on test results and logs.
* Determining whether more tests are needed.
Select the correct answer:
- A. Test monitoring and control.
- B. Test planning.
- C. Test analysis.
- D. Test design.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The activities of checking test results and logs against specified coverage criteria, assessing the level of component or system quality based on test results and logs, and determining whether more tests are needed fall under the category of test monitoring and control. This phase involves ongoing assessment and adjustment of the test activities to ensure they meet the test objectives and quality goals.
NEW QUESTION # 87
An Incident Management tool implements the following defect states; Open, Assigned, Solved, Closed Consider the following defect report:
Id T000561
Test Object "Warehouse Management' application
Tester name; John Bishop
Date: 10th. April 2010
Test Case MRT558I
Status OPEN
Severity Serious
Priority
Problem- After inputting the Total Quantity item = 450 in the SV034 screen, the system shows an unexpected Error message=47 Correction:
Developer name:
Closing date:
Which of the following is a valid criticism of this report?
- A. The description is not highlighting the source of the problem
- B. The Priority, the Correction description and the Developer name are missing
- C. The version of the application is missing
- D. There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability)
Answer: C
Explanation:
A valid criticism of this report is that the version of the application is missing. The version of the application is an important piece of information that should be included in a defect report, as it helps to identify which release or build of the software product contains the defect. The version of the application can also help to reproduce and debug the defect, as different versions may have different behaviors or features. The other options are not valid criticisms of this report. The priority, the correction description and the developer name are not missing, but rather not applicable for this report. The priority is a measure of how urgently a defect needs to be fixed, which can be assigned by the project manager or the defect tracking system, not by the tester who reports the defect. The correction description and the developer name are information that are added after the defect has been resolved, not when it has been reported. There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability) is not a valid criticism of this report, because traceability is not a mandatory attribute of a defect report, but rather an optional one. Traceability is a relationship between two or more entities (such as requirements, test cases, defects, etc.) that shows how they are related or dependent on each other. Traceability can help to verify that the requirements are met by the test cases and defects, but it is not essential for reporting a defect. The description is not highlighting the source of the problem is not a valid criticism of this report, because highlighting the source of the problem is not a responsibility of the tester who reports the defect, but rather of the developer who fixes the defect. The description should provide enough information to describe what happened when the defect occurred, such as input values, expected results, actual results, error messages, screenshots, etc., but it does not need to explain why or how it happened. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 140.
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